Posted by moy23 on 4/15/2015 1:18:00 PM (view original):
Posted by bad_luck on 4/15/2015 1:02:00 PM (view original):
Posted by moy23 on 4/15/2015 12:55:00 PM (view original):
Posted by bad_luck on 4/15/2015 12:54:00 PM (view original):
Posted by moy23 on 4/15/2015 12:53:00 PM (view original):
BL - we all saw the video and if slagers intent was EVIDENT.... Then what specifically was his intent?
Slager's intent was to shoot Scott.
Agreed. So then why did slager intend to shoot Scott?
Does why matter?
Let's say Slager thought Scott was a danger to Slager as he was running away.
Does that absolve Slager?
It matters because thats the distinction between the different charges. If as you said - Slager thought Scott was a danger to slager himself, even as he was running away.... Then you just proved its involuntary manslaughter. There was no malicious intent, only intent to protect himself. It would suggest slager was in the wrong fpr thinking this way and that he recklessly killed a man because of it. Thats not murder, again that's involuntarily manslaughter. It would be the equivalent of the 73 year old Oklahoma cop that was just charged with manslaughter for thinking his gun was a taser. Intent.
Ill ask another question... Do you believe a 'tussle' was taking place (as eye witness 2 claims) right before the video starts?
Again, you're viewing malice aforethought incorrectly. This is from a definition
you listed:
but malice aforethought does not necessarily imply any ill will, spite or hatred towards the individual killed.
Slager's fear must be objectively reasonable to be valid. If it isn't objectively reasonable, then the shooting is not legally justifiable. If the shooting is not legally justifiable, then we are left with Slager intentionally shooting Scott (malice aforethought) and killing him. Which is murder in South Carolina, not manslaughter.