Posted by moy23 on 4/15/2015 12:19:00 PM (view original):
Posted by bad_luck on 4/15/2015 11:37:00 AM (view original):
Posted by moy23 on 4/15/2015 11:30:00 AM (view original):
Here are the choices in South Carolina.... That's it unless you were to skip these and find ticky tacky misdemeanor gun laws which no one here thinks is appropriate.
SECTION 16-3-10. "Murder" defined.
"Murder" is the killing of any person with malice aforethought, either express or implied.
SECTION 16-3-50. Manslaughter.
A person convicted of manslaughter, or the unlawful killing of another without malice, express or implied, must be imprisoned not more than thirty years or less than two years.
SECTION 16-3-60. Involuntary manslaughter; "criminal negligence" defined.
With regard to the crime of involuntary manslaughter, criminal negligence is defined as the reckless disregard of the safety of others. A person charged with the crime of involuntary manslaughter may be convicted only upon a showing of criminal negligence as defined in this section. A person convicted of involuntary manslaughter must be imprisoned not more than five years.
Despite what BL seems to think MALICE legally means 'evil intent'. MALICE AFORETHOUGHT means premeditated or deliberate 'evil intent'. Aforethought literally means 'thought of previously or planned beforehand'.
The legal definition of malice aforethought is:
Malice aforethought is the the deliberate intent to cause death or great bodily harm to another person before a person commits the crime. Malice aforethought is an element that must be proved in the crime of first degree murder. This description of the perpetrator's state of mind basically means that he or she had an intent to inflict injury without legal justification or excuse (legal justification included such defenses as self-defense, while excuse includes mental illness and duress).
Malice aforethought is comprised of any one of the following three elements: (1) an intent to kill; (2) an intent to inflict grievous bodily injury; or (3) an intent to act in a manner that creates a plain and strong likelihood that death or grievous harm will follow. Of these three prongs of malice, the first two prongs require a specific intent on the part of the defendant, measured subjectively, while the third prong only requires a general intent, measured both subjectively and objectively. Accordingly, malice aforethought may exist without an actual intent to kill or do grievous bodily harm, if there is proof of the "third prong" of malice. This simply means that the perpetrator knew of circumstances that a reasonably prudent person would have known created a plain and strong likelihood of death or grievous bodily harm resulting from the perpetrator's act. The law can infer malice from circumstantial evidence, such as from the intentional use of a deadly weapon.
Are you sure this is the ONLY legal definition?
I can also find the following...
From http://dictionary.law.com/Default.aspx?selected=1198
malice aforethought
n. 1) the conscious intent to cause death or great bodily harm to another person before a person commits the crime. Such malice is a required element to prove first degree murder. 2) a general evil and depraved state of mind in which the person is unconcerned for the lives of others. Thus, if a person uses a gun to hold up a bank and an innocent bystander is killed in a shoot-out with police, there is malice aforethought.
From http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/malice+aforethought
Malice Aforethought
A predetermination to commit an act without legal justification or excuse. A malicious design to injure. An intent, at the time of a killing, willfully to take the life of a human being, or an intent willfully to act in callous and wanton disregard of the consequences to human life; but malice aforethought does not necessarily imply any ill will, spite or hatred towards the individual killed.
But if we do use yours.... Is being attacked while doing your job 'legal excuse' and if it isn't then prongs 1 & 2 require 'specific' intent to cause harm or death.... Is shooting a man in the butt the mark of a man 'specifically' trying to harm or kill someone or could it be contrived as an officer trying to stop/slow down a fleeing suspect that just grabbed his taser?
Point is once again you are trying to pin a case on the outliers of the law, the technicalities, the very hard stuff to prove as a prosecutor (and the easy stuff for defense to win a case on - think OJ Simpson). To win a case you are better arguing from a point of strength which would be slager may or may not have intended to kill Scott... Either way it was illegal... Thus its manslaughter based on any number of these cases in the past we can bring up for example.
Is being attacked while doing your job 'legal excuse'
Scott was running away. You can't claim self defense if the other person is running away. You know this.
Is shooting a man in the butt the mark of a man 'specifically' trying to harm or kill someone
Are you arguing that Slager wasn't trying to hurt Scott by shooting at him eight times?
Slager's intent was evident. He aimed his gun at Scott and fired eight times knowing, better than most people, exactly what would happen.
I see your disconnect. Slager probably felt like the shooting was justifiable when he pulled to the trigger. To you, that eliminates malice. He wasn't
trying to do anything wrong.
The thing is, if his actions weren't justifiable (was Slager's fear "objectively reasonable"), then he killed Scott with malice aforethought because he intended to shoot Scott.
4/15/2015 12:44 PM (edited)