Posted by tecwrg on 6/21/2013 10:32:00 PM (view original):
How can a federal agency, let's take the IRS for example, function effectively if something that is a factor in determining income tax liability like marriage, is left to the states to decide?
Does it make sense that the IRS should be expected to have to work off of potentially 50 different definitions of marriage, based on whatever state a particular 1040 form was filed from?
It's appropriate for the federal government to define marriage at the federal level. Which it has, with DOMA.
I'm starting to get the feeling that you aren't just playing dumb and you legitimately think the Feds do (or should) have the power to regulate marriage. They don't.
The IRS will just follow state law, like they do now. It's not unprecedented. I work in insurance. There is no federal regulation of insurance. Each state has its own laws and the IRS (taxes are a huge deal in insurance) handles it just fine. And that's way more complicated than, "married: Yes/No."